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Discuss JMET within the Preparation Resources/ General CAT queries and info !! forums, part of the CAT, XAT, MAT, CET, JMET and other Indian MBA Entrance Exams category; Originally Posted by paperwala Sample Test Questions for JMET Notes about the Test: The JMET is a two-hour long test ...

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Re: JMET - January 12th, 2016

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Originally Posted by paperwala View Post
Sample Test Questions for JMET

Notes about the Test:
The JMET is a two-hour long test with 150 multiple-choice questions grouped into five sections. The questions are designed to evaluate basic verbal, logical reasoning and quantitative analysis skills, and the extent of awareness of current affairs and the business environment. The sections are:

1. Written Communication
2. Logical reasoning
3. Quantitative ability
4. Data interpretation ability
5. General business environment awareness

The test requires knowledge of basic mathematics (arithmetic, algebra, geometry, set theory, probability and statistics) and English.

Sample questions for each of the five sections are provided below. Note that these are only indicative of the type of questions that may be expected in the test; they should not be construed as possible test questions.
Section 1: Written Communication
For questions 1-2, choose the pair of words that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed by the original pair:

1. Impromptu : Rehearsal : :
A) numerical : calculation B) practiced : technique
C) offhand : premeditation D makeshift : whim

2. Myth : Legendary : :
A) sermon : lengthy B) epic : comic
C) fable : didactic D) anecdote : witty

For question 3 select the word or phrase which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the given word or phrase:

3. Unscathed
A) cleansed B) injured C) honest D) forgiven

For question 4 select the word or phrase which is most similar in meaning to given word or phrase:

4. Insipid
A) witty B) flat C) lucid D) wily

Questions 5 - 6 are based on the following passage.

The general principles of dynamics are rules that demonstrate a relationship between the motions of bodies and the forces that produce those motions. Based in large part on the work of his predecessors, Sir lsaac Newton deduced three laws of dynamics, which he published in 1687 in his famous Principia.
Prior to Newton, Aristotle had established that the natural state of a body was a state of rest and that unless a force acted upon it to maintain motion, a moving body would come to rest. Galileo had succeeded in correctly describing the behavior of falling objects and in recording that no force was required to maintain a body in motion. He noted that the effect of force was to change motion. Huygens recognized that a change in the direction of motion involved acceleration, just as did a change in speed, and further, that the action of a force was required. Kepler deduced the laws describing the motion of planets around the sun. It was primarily from Galileo and Kepler that Newton borrowed.

5. What was the main purpose of this passage?
(A) To demonstrate the development of Newton's laws
(B) To establish Newton as the authority in the field of physics
(C) To discredit Newton's laws of motion
(D) To describe the motion of planets around the sun

6. According to Huygen, when was acceleration required?
(A) For either a change in direction or a change in speed
(B) Only for a change in speed
(C) Only for a change in direction
(D) Neither for a change in direction nor for a change in speed

7. Which of the following, scientists established that the natural state of a body was a state of rest?
(A) Galileo
(B) Kepler
(C) Aristotle
(D) Galileo and Kepler

For questions 8 – 11, choose the word or the set of words which when inserted in the sentence best fits its meaning.

8. Although a few years ago fundamental facts about the Milky Way seemed fairly well
____________ now even its mass and radius have come into _____________.
A) determined ------------ resolution B) diminished -------- disrepute
C) problematic ---------- prominence D) established --------- question

9. The officers threatened to take __________ if the lives of their men were ________ by the conquered natives.
A) reprisals -------endangered B) pains ------ destroyed
C) measures -------- enhanced D) affront ----- enervated

10. A ________ statement is a(n) ___________ comparison: it does not compare two things explicitly, but suggests a likeness between them.
A) sarcastic -------- blatant B) sanguine ------- inherent
C) metaphorical ------- implied D) bellicose ------- ardent

11. The orator was so ___________ that the audience became ________.
A) dramatic ------- affable B) convincing ------ moribund
C) soporific ------ drowsy D) inaudible ----- elated
Questions 12 - 15 consist of a number of sentences in each of which some part or the whole is underlined. Each sentence is followed by four alternative versions of the underlined portion. Select the alternative you consider both most correct and most effective according to the requirements of standard written English. Note that in each case answer A is always the same as the original version. If you think the original version is the best, select answer A. Do not select an answer which alters the meaning of the original sentence.
12. He had hoped that he would graduate this semester, but he could not finish his thesis in time.
A) that he would graduate
B) to graduate
C) that he will graduate
D) that he could graduate
13 There are not enough cars for all of us to go.
A) enough cars
B) cars enough
C) enough car
D) car enough
14. I was told that most of the people who won the lottery got only a few rupees.
A) most of the people
B) most people
C) many of the people
D) most of people
15. Exercising makes most people feel better.
A) exercising
B) to exercise
C) to exercising
D) to be exercising
Section 2: Logical reasoning
Questions 16 -.20:

Each of the following problems has a question and two statements that are labeled I and II. Use the information given in I and II together with other available information to decide whether the statements are sufficient to answer the question, and mark your response as –
A) If you can get the answer from I alone but not from II alone
B) If you can get the answer from II alone but not from I alone
C) If you can get the answer from both I and II together, but not from I alone or II alone
D) If statement I and statement II together do not suffice

Statements for questions 16 - 20:
I. Ram is 10 years older than Shyam, while Laxman is half the age of Shyam.
II. Bharat is 5 years younger than Laxman, and Shyam is three times older than Bharat.
16. What is the age of Ram?
17. What is the age of Laxman?
18. When Ram married Sita she was half his age. Now Sita’s age and Shyam’s age add up to 50 years. What is Sita’s age?
19. What is the ratio between Shyam’s age and Bharat’s age?
20. Bharat’s wife Radha married him 10 years before the present year. What is Radha’s age?
Questions 21 - 25:

Letters A, B, C, D, E, F are to be arranged in a sequence from left to right under following conditions:
Letters E and D have to be placed adjacent to each other.
A has to be placed to the left of E.
B and F should not be adjacent to each other.
A has to be placed to the right of B.
C has to be placed to the immediate right of A.

21. Which of the following is a valid sequence?
(A) BACDEF (B) FBACDE (C) EDBACF (D) ACFEDB

22. If letter A is placed at the second position from the left, how many valid sequences are possible?
(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 9 (D) 20

23. If letter A is placed at the third position from the left, how many valid sequences are possible?
(A) none (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 6

24. If letters C and D are placed adjacent to each other, how many valid sequences are possible?
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 0

25. Which of the following is true?
A) Letter B may not occupy the first position from the left.
B) Letter C can occupy the second position from the left.
C) Letter D can occupy fourth, fifth or sixth position from the left.
D) Letter F can occupy first or second position from the left.

Questions 26 - 30:

The following questions have two statements. Select the assumption that is absolutely necessary so that the second statement can be interpreted from the first statement.

26. Sales of firm MNO increased from 1997-98 to 1998-99 while its number of employees remained same. Physical productivity of employees at MNO increased from 1997-98 to 1998-99.

A) No employee has retired at MNO between 1997 and 1999.
B) Sales mentioned in the first statement is in value terms.
C) Sales mentioned in the first statement is in physical terms.
D) Average price of MNO’s products has increased from 1997-98 to 1998-99.

27. Karim is exactly twice as old as Rahim. Karim’s age 10 years ago was two times Saleem’s present age.

(A) Saleem is 5 years younger than Rahim. (B) Rahim is twice as old as Saleem.
(C) Saleem is the same age as Rahim. (D) Saleem is 10 years younger than Rahim.


28. X and Y are positive integers. The sum of X and Y is less than their product.
A) At least one of X and Y is not 1.
B) Both X and Y are greater than 2.
C) Neither X nor Y takes the value 1.
D) At least one of X and Y is greater than 2.

29. Next year India’s GDP will increase by 10%. Next year India’s GDP per capita will increase at the same rate as this year.
A) Next year India’s population will increase at the same rate as this year.
B) Next year India’s GDP as well as population will increase at the same rate as this year.
C) This year India’s GDP increased at 10%.
D) None of the above.

30. The electricity production in Maharashtra increased from 1997-98 to 1998-99. Maharashtra consumed more electricity in 1998-99 compared to 1997-98.
A) Maharashtra imported some electricity in 1998-99.
B) Maharashtra’s net of import minus export in 1998-99 is positive.
C) Maharashtra’s increase in electricity production in 1998-99 is greater than its net of export minus import in 1998-99.
D) Maharashtra’s increase in electricity production in 1998-99 is greater than its net of import minus export in 1998-99.
Section 3: Quantitative ability
31. A right-cylindrical container is half full with water, and mango pulp is poured into it from a right-circular cone, full to its brim, with the same height and base radius of that of the right-cylindrical container. Half of the mixture is poured out and mango pulp is added till the right-cylindrical container became half full again. The ratio of mango pulp to the water in the container is now
(A) 1:1 (B) 1:2 (C) 2:1 (D) 2:3

32. Ram has Rs.X which he wants to invest so that his annual return is at least 10%. There are two schemes. The first one will yield a guaranteed annual return of 5% while the other one is a high-risk investment with an annual return of 25%. Ram assesses that at most 10% of the principal and its interest of the high-risk investment may be lost. At least what percentage of his capital should Ram invest in the high-risk investment?
A) 25% (B) 33% (C) 67% (D) 75%

33. If x+y+z=0 and x3+y3+z3 - kxyz=0, then only one of the following is true. Which one is it?
(A) k=3 whatever be x, y and z (B) k=0 whatever be x, y and z.
(C) k can be only one of the numbers +1, -1 and 0. (D) If none of x, y, z is zero, then k=3.

Questions 34 - 35:

Machine A produces x units of output per hour, while machine B produces x units of output every 1.5 hours.

34. How many hours does it take to produce x units of output, with both machines A and B working together?
(A) (4x + 1)/4x (B) 5/4 (C) 3/(5x) (D) 3/5

35. Four more machines are installed with their capacities lying between those of machines A and B. Which of the following cannot be the average number of hours per machine for producing x units of output?
(A) 1.05 (B) 1.15 (C) 1.25 (D) 1.35

Questions 36 - 37:

The ratios of linear distances traveled by three space-crafts are 1: 2 : 3.

36. If the ratios of the traveling times over these distances are 3:2:1, then the ratios of their speeds are:
(A) 1:1:1 (B) 1:3:9 (C) 9:3:1 (D) 3:1:3

37. If the ratios of the speeds are 3:2:1, then the ratios of the traveling times over these distances are:
(A) 1:1:1 (B) 1:3:9 (C) 9:3:1 (D) 3:1:3

38. If x7 + ax5 + 2 is divisible by x + 1 then it follows that a must equal:
(A) -1 (B) 1 (C) 5 (D) 7

39. A widow and a son are to receive Rs.20,000 and Rs.10,000 respectively from an inheritance of Rs.1,00,000. The rest is to be divided so that the widow receives 3/2 times as much of it as the son. Then the amounts received by the {Widow,Son} pair in thousands of Rs. is:
(A) {60,40} (B) {42,28} (C) {52,48} (D) {62,38}

40. The demand for a commodity linearly decreases by 0.5 unit for each unit increase in price and it vanishes when the price is set at 60. The supply of the commodity vanishes when the price is set at 25 and equals the square-root of the price in excess of this threshold price. Then the equilibrium price at which the supply coincides with the demand is:
(A) 5 (B) 50 (C) 74 (D) 62 ± 2÷86

41. If r _ s = rs + r + s then for what value of s is r _ s equal to r for all values of r?
(A) -1 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 1/(r + 1)

Questions 42 - 44:

A clothing manufacturer produces both suits and coats. Each suit requires 1 sq.m. of wool and 2 sq.m. of dacron, while each coat requires 3 sq.m. of wool and 1 sq.m. of dacron. The manufacturer has 600 sq.m. of wool and 400 sq.m. of dacron. Each suit sells for Rs.1500 and each coat sells for Rs.1000. Let x >= 0 and y >= 0 respectively denote the number of suits and coats produced by the manufacturer.

42. Then x and y must satisfy:
A) x + 3y £ 600, 2x + y £ 400
B) x + 2y £ 600, 3x + y £ 400
C) x + 3y £ 400, 2x + y £ 600
D) x + 2y £ 400, 3x + y £ 600

43. The objective of the manufacturer is to minimize:
(A) 1500x+1000y (B) -1500x-1000y (C) -1000x-1500y (D) 1000x+1500y

44. Which of the following combinations of number of {Suits,Coats} the manufacturer cannot produce :
(A) {0,200} (B) {200,0} (C) {120,160} (D) {300, 100}

Section 4: Data interpretation ability
For questions 45 – 49, consider the following data for a bank:
The bars in the histogram represent the following in the same order in each of the five years:


(1) Demand Deposits (2) Savings Deposits (3) Term Deposits (4) Investments (5) Advances

45. The contribution of savings deposits to total deposits is the highest in the year
(A) 1993-94 (B) 1994-95 (C) 1995-96 (D) 1995-96

46. The contribution of term deposits to total deposits is the highest in the year
(A) 1993-94 (B) 1994-95 (C) 1995-96 (D) 1997-98

47. Which of the following statements is true?
A) The contribution of demand deposits has risen consistently during the period 1993-98.
B) The contribution of savings deposits has risen consistently during the period 1993-98.
C) The contribution of term deposits has risen consistently during the period 1993-98.
D) The deposits have risen consistently during the period 1993-98.

48. The contribution of demand deposits to total deposits is the lowest in the year
(A) 1997-98 (B) 1996-97 (C) 1995-96 (D) 1994-95

49. Which of the following statements is true?
A) The bank has been investing a major portion of its deposits in government securities.
B) The credit to deposit ration has declined during the period 1993-98
C) The bank has failed in its deposit mobilization drive.
D) None of these.





Questions 50– 54 are based on the following information on percentage change in export sales in dollar terms by certain firms from 1996 to 1998.
Percentage Change
Firm From 1996 to 1997 From 1997 to 1998
I
J
K
L
M
-4
-5
+15
-15
+5
+6
+12
-5
+6
+3


50. In the case of firm ‘K’, the dollar amount of export sales for 1997 was approximately what percentage of the dollar amount of export sales for 1998?
(A) 76% (B) 82% (C) 105% (D) 118%

51. In 1998, for which of the firms was the dollar amount of export sales greater than that of any of the others shown?
(A) I (B) J (C) K (D) Insufficient information
52. In the case of firm ‘L’, the dollar amount of export sales for 1998 was approximately what percentage of the dollar amount of export sales for 1996?
(A) 72% (B) 80% (C) 102% (D) 90%

53. Which of the following firms has registered the highest increase in exports during the period 1996-98?
(A) I (B) J (C) K (D) M

54. Which firm(s) has (have) registered a decrease in exports during the period 1996-98?
(A) I, K (B) L (C) L, M (D) K
Section 5: General business environment awareness

55. Which of the following four countries occupies the highest position in “Global Competitive Report” of World Economic forum?
A) USA
B) Singapore
C) Hong Kong
D) UK

56. Economic Liberalization in India started with
A) Substantial changes in industrial licensing policy
B) Convertibility of Indian rupee
C) Doing away with procedural formalities for foreign direct investment
D) Significant reduction in tax rates

57. For what type of fertilizer, is India fully dependent on import?
A) Nitrogen fertilizer
B) Phosphatic fertilizer
C) Potash fertilizer
D) None of these


58. Which tax gives maximum net revenue to the Government
A) Excise Duty
B) Income Tax
C) Customs Duty
D) Wealth Tax

59. Small Scale Sector’s contribution in total Indian exports is about
A) 1/ 3
B) _
C) 50%
D) 2 / 3

60. National Income of India is estimated by
A) Planning Commission
B) Finance Commission
C) Indian Statistical Institute
D) Central Statistical Organisation

61. What is “Super 301”
A) Name of advance computer chip
B) American Trade Law
C) New variety of rice
D) American research for AIDS

62. Which of the following regulate the working of stock market in India
A) MRTP
B) FERA
C) BIFR
D) SEBI

63. Bubonic and pneumonic are the two types of deadly disease
A) Cancer
B) Plague
C) Aids
D) None of the above

64. The Ramon Magsaysay award is named after former President of
A) Thailand
B) Phillipines
C) Indonesia
D) None of the above

65. India crossed an important milestone on May 26,1999 when ISRO successfully put into orbit 3 Satellites. Where was the launch carried out?
A) Hyderabad
B) Sriharikota
C) Pokhran
D) France




66. DVD stands for
A) Direct Video Disc
B) Digitally Very Demanding
C) Digital Versatile Disc
D) None of the above

67. Which of the following public sector steel plants produces stainless sheets/coils?
A) Durgapur Steel Plant
B) Bhilai Steel Plant
C) Salem Steel Plant
D) Indian Iron & Steel Company

68. The biggest seaport of India which also has a natural harbour is at
A) Mumbai
B) Calcutta-Haldia
C) Cochin
D) Vishakhapatnam
Gey paperwala, you have shared a very important question test. It is sometimes very beneficial for the candidates to get some ideas about the question pattern coming in the exam. I am also adding a document where you will get another set of question regarding JMET.
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