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Dee Yai !!

Dee Yai !!

Discuss Dee Yai !! within the DI / DS forums, part of the CAT, XAT, MAT, CET, JMET and other Indian MBA Entrance Exams category; Q. are based on the following graph 1.Which year of showed the greatest percentage increase in profit as compared to ...

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Wink Dee Yai !! - September 2nd, 2006

Q. are based on the following graph



1.Which year of showed the greatest percentage increase in profit as compared to the previous year ?
1. 1993
2. 1994
3. 1990
4. 1992

2.The average revenue collected in the given seven years is approximately:
1. Rs. 164 lakh
2. Rs. 168 lakh
3. Rs. 171 lakh
4. Rs. 175 lakh

3.In which year was the growth in expenditure greatest as compared to the previous year?
1. 1993
2. 1995
3. 1991
4. 1992

4.The expenditure for the seven years together form what percent of the revenues during the same period ?
1. 75%
2. 67%
3. 62%
4. 83%

5. If the profit in 1996 shows the same annual rate of growth as it had shown in 1995 over the previous year, then what approximately will be the profit in 1996 ?
1. Rs. 72 lakh
2. Rs. 86 lakh
3. Rs. 93 lakh
4. Rs. 78 lakh
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Re: Dee Yai !! - September 6th, 2006

C'mon guys, we need more enthusiasm here. Now u can earn points while u learn. Check my signature for details.

So lets get cracking !!


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Re: Dee Yai !! - September 6th, 2006

1.) 3

2.) 1

3.) 4

4.) 83

All answers are just assumptions made by looking at the graph and without actual calculation.


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Re: Dee Yai !! - September 6th, 2006

5) 93 lakhs is the ans i guess....the profit figure in 94 is around 60 lakhs and the profit figure in 95 is around 75 lakhs..so the growth is 25%...and calculating the 25% of &%lakhs we get 18.75lakhs...so the new profit amount should be around 93 lakhs
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Re: Dee Yai !! - September 6th, 2006

The correct answers with explanation is given below.

Note down the corresponding values of Profit, Revenue & Expenditure on the bar graph itself, keeping in mind, Profit = Revenue - Expenditure. The values read from the graph should satisfy this condition for each year. Here corresponding values are given in the form of a table to make the solution easier to understand:


YEAR 1989 1990 1991 1992 1993 1994 1995
Profit 20 25 30 40 50 60 72
Reven. 122 130 145 170 185 200 222
Expend. 102 105 115 130 135 140 150


1. (4) Percentage Increase = [Final value - Initial value] 100/Initial value. Using this formula & conversion of fractions into percentage, calculate the percentage increase for the various years. Maximum percentage increase is for the year 1992 = (40 - 30)/30 = 1/3 = 33.33%.

2. (2) Average Revenue = (Total Revenue)/(Number of years)
= (122 + 130 + 145 + 170 + 185 + 200 + 222)/7
= 1174/7
= 167.7 = 168(approx.)

3. (4) From the table, it can be seen that growth in expenditure as compared to the previous year was maximum in 1992.

4. (1) Total Revenue = 1174
Total Expenditure = 700 + (2 + 5 + 15 + 30 + 35 + 40 + 50) = 887
%formed by the revenue = 887/1174 ~ 900/1200 = ¾ = 75%
[Actual values will give 75.55% & again (1) will be the correct answer but you can save time using approximations]

5. (2) % profit in 95 = (72 - 60) /60 = 1/5 = 20%
As per the given condition % profit in 96 = 20%
Then total profit will be (6 ´ 72)/5 ~ 86 lakhs

@neeraj... ur answer was incorrect, but i award u 2 points for participating. Better luck next time. The questions were also not so easy.



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Gaurav Mittal



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Re: Dee Yai !! - September 6th, 2006

Ok, here are the next set of questions:



1. What is the maximum production capacity (in ‘000 tonnes) of Lipton for coffee?

1. 2.53
2. 2.85
3. 2.24
4. 2.07

2. The highest price of coffee per kg is for
1. Nestle
2. MAC
3. Lipton
4. Insufficient data

3. What percent of the total market share (by Sales Value) is controlled by “Others”?
1. 60%
2. 32%
3. 67%
4. Insufficient data.

4. What approximately is the total production capacity (in tonnes) for coffee in India?
1. 18, 100
2. 20, 300
3. 18,900
4. Insufficient data.

5. Which company out of the four companies mentioned above has the maximum unutilised capacity (in ‘000 tonnes)?
1. Lipton
2. Nestle
3. Brooke Bond
4. MAC


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Gaurav Mittal



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Re: Dee Yai !! - September 6th, 2006

1)2.53
approx 65% corresponds to 1.64 then 100 corresponds to 2.53 i.e
100*1.64/65=2.53
2)Nestle since 2.03 tonnes cost 26.75 crores so 1 tonne cost around 13.35 crores
3)32%
The total market share controlled by others is
132.80-(31.15+26.75+15.25+17.45)= 42 approx so 42/132= 32%
4)18900
since 61.30% percent of the production capacity corresponds to 11,600 therefore 100 corresponds to 18900 although nowhere in the question it is mentioned data is for india so we can also opt for insufficent data
i did not solve 5 too much calculation
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Re: Dee Yai !! - September 6th, 2006

According to me:
1) 2(2.85)
2) 3(lipton)
3) 4(insufficient data)
4) 3(brooke bond)



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Re: Dee Yai !! - September 7th, 2006

2 ) Nestle .. .50 difference in production and way huge selling price

3.) 32 .... add everythin up of SV .. comes to approx 70%


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September 7th, 2006

Well here are the answers guys...... even i'm surprised at how they solved the 2nd question.

1. (1) For Lipton production = 1.64 (“000 tonnes)
Capacity Utilisation = 64.8% ~ 65%
65% = 13/20, so maximum production capacity = (20 ´ 1.64)/13 = 32.8/13 ~ 2.53 (‘000 tonnes)

2. (4) Data insufficient, because different varieties of coffee of the same brand may have different prices. We can not assume that there will be only one variety of coffee of each brand.

3. (2) Total Sales Value (incl. Others) = 132.8(Rs. Cr.)
Sales value (BB + Nestle + Lipton + MAX) = [31.15 + 26.75 + 15.25 + 17.45]
= 90.60 (Rs. Cr.)
Total sales value of others = 132.8 - 90.60 = 42.2 (Rs. Cr)
Others /Total = 42.2/132.8 ~ 1/3 (approx.)
% share of others = 33.33% (approx.)
Hence, the closest option will be the correct answer i.e. 32%.

4. (3) Total prod capacity = [100 ´ Total prod. (‘000 tonnes) ] /(% Capacity utilisation)
= (100 ´ 11.63)/61.3
= 1160/50 (approx.)
= 19.3 (‘000 tonnes)
Here we are taking approximate value of the denominator to be less than the actual value Hence, the closest option will be the correct answer i.e. 18,900.

5. (4) Unutilised capacity of a company is given by.
(100 - % capacity utilisation) (Production in ‘000 tonnes)/(% capacity utilisation)
Substituting the corresponding values from the table, we get that maximum unutilised cap. is for MAC i.e. (100 - 59.35) ´ (1.54)/59.35 ~ 1.05 (‘000 tonnes)


Well tried neeraj and keshwendu.... 4 and 2 points to u respectively.


Regards,
Gaurav Mittal



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